GK Compilation from Kerala PSC Question Paper 2019

GK Compilation from Kerala PSC Question Paper 2019:

1. Which script was introduced in South India by Ashoka?
(A) Prakrit
(B) Pali
(C) Brahmi
(D) Kharosthi

Ans: Brahmi (C)

2. Mark the correct statement:

1. “Mughal rule began and ended at Panipat”.
2. Marathas were defeated in the Third Battle of Panipat.
3. French rule began with Panipat.
4. French power ended with Panipat.

(A) 1 is correct.
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
(D) None of the above

Ans: 2 is correct (B)

3. Growth of vernacular literature in Medieval India was the greatest contribution of
(A) Vijayanagar Kingdom
(B) Bahmani Kingdom
(C) Bhakti movement saints
(D) Sultans of Delhi

Ans: Bhakti movement saints (C)

4. Mark the correct statement:

1. Nizamuddin Auliya was the contemporary of Muhammad Tughluq.
2. Tulsidas was influenced by Shaikh Salim Chishti.

(A) 1 only
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

5. Which ruler of South India planted the Tree of Liberty?
(A) Tipu
(B) Haider Ali
(C) Prataparudra Deva
(D) Dost Muhammad

Ans: Tipu (A)

6. Mark the incorrect statement:

1. Ashtapradhan is associated with Shivaji.
2. Shivaji was the organizer of Maratha Rajya.
3. Sulh-i-kul was the idea of Shivaji.
4. Treaty of Purandar took place with Shivaji.

(A) 1 is incorrect.
(B) 2 is incorrect.
(C) 3 is incorrect.
(D) All are incorrect.

Ans: 3 is incorrect (C)

7. Mahmud Gawan was the minister of
(A) Bahmani Kingdom
(B) Vijayanagar
(C) Bidar
(D) Berar

Ans: Bahmani Kingdom (A)

8. Which ruler used marble in his buildings?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shah Jahan
(D) Aurangzeb

Ans: Shah Jahan (C)

9. Who wrote the book ‘A Nation in the Making’?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) S.N. Banerjee

Ans: S.N. Banerjee (D)

10. Which among the following is not a work of Pandit Karuppan?
(A) Anandasutram
(B) Lankamardanam
(C) Sthothramandaaram
(D) Acharabhooshanam

Ans: Anandasutram (A)

11. Consider the following pairs:

Organization Founder
1. Vidyaposhini Sahodaran Ayyappan
2. Ananda Maha Sabha Vagbhadananda
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

12. Which among the following is not a work of Pandit Karuppan?
(A) Anandasutram
(B) Lankamardanam
(C) Sthothramandaaram
(D) Acharabhooshanam

Ans: Anandasutram (A)

13. Which one of the following events is related with the 2nd World War period (1939-45)?
(A) Moroccan crisis
(B) Zimmermann Telegram
(C) Operation Barbarossa
(D) The Berlin Blockade

Ans: Operation Barbarossa (C)

14. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4 only

Ans: 1 only (C)

15. Consider the following statements:

1. The process of victory of anti-colonial struggles and achievement of freedom by colonies came to be known as decolonisation.
2. These struggles were won only by means of force and violence.
3. Anti-colonial struggles achieved their first success in Africa and then in Asia.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1 only (B)

16. Consider the following statements:

1. The International Labour Organization (ILO) was established after the 1st World War to secure social justice.
2. The ILO was part of the Treaty of Versailles of 1919.
3. The ILO became the first specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
4. India is a founder-member of the ILO.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D)

17. With reference to the consequences of the Industrial Revolution, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Subjugation of agricultural countries of the world
2. Increased unautomated production
3. Rise in per capita income.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1 and 3 only (A)

18. Consider the following statements:

1. Globalization is an ongoing process starting from the dawn of civilization.
2. Some scholars find origins of globalization in the expansion of imperialism in Asia and Africa by European powers.
3. Globalization came about with the revolution in transport and communication technologies during 19th and 20th centuries.
4. The process of globalization was increasingly felt only in 1970s.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D)

19. With reference to the Industrial Revolution in England, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Guild System promoted Industrial Revolution.
(B) Greater production of goods resulted in end of factory system.
(C) Manufacturing methods also changed the methods of agriculture.
(D) None of the above

Ans: Manufacturing methods also changed the methods of agriculture (C)

20. With reference to the politico-economic theory of Communism, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Marxist ideas of how to change the world was based on a scientific analysis of society through history.
(B) No society can be Socialist before having gone through the stages of Capitalism.
(C) Capitalism itself creates the conditions for the overthrow of the capitalist society.
(D) Karl Marx showed that the material bases of life never determine the nature of society.

Ans: Karl Marx showed that the material bases of life never determine the nature of society (D)

21. With reference to colonization, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) The ideology of Imperialism encourages conquest and colonial domination.
(B) Colonialism produces a dualistic society in which one sector is modern and capitalist while another sector is traditional and pre-capitalist.
(C) In colonial India, agriculture had no capitalist element.
(D) None of the above.

Ans: In colonial India, agriculture had no capitalist element (C)

22. With reference to the resolution on Partition Plan of Palestine State of 1947, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Palestine was under French mandate System after the 1st World War.
(B) The Plan of Partition was recommended by the U.S.A. in 1947.
(C) After this resolution, a civil war broke out and the plan was not implemented.
(D) All the statements are correct.

Ans: After this resolution, a civil war broke out and the plan was not implemented (C)

22. Consider the following statements:

1. In Kerala, the megaliths are burial sites.
2. Iron objects and pottery are the main items found from megalithic burials in Kerala.
3. ‘Pattanam’ is a megalithic burial site.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) All of the above

Ans: 3 only (C)

23. Which among the following is not related with medicine in Kerala?
(A) Matangaleela
(B) Prakriya Sarvaswam
(C) Ashtanga Sareeram
(D) Prayoga Samuchayam

Ans: Prakriya Sarvaswam (B)

24. With reference to the temple architecture of Kerala, consider the following statements:

1. Pallava style of architecture influenced temple architecture in Kerala.
2. Koothambalam is an important feature of Kerala temple architecture.
3. Vimana is an important feature of Kerala temples.
   Which of the above is/are not correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 3 only (B)

25. Consider the following:

1. Mampalli copper plate of Shri Vallabhan Kota is the first record that used
   Kollam Era.
2. Parthivapuram copper plate refers to the grants of land to ‘Salai’.
3. Jewish copper plate speaks of a grant to Joseph Rabban.
   Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (C)

26. Which among the following palace is famous for its mural painting ‘Gajendramoksha’?
(A) Mattanchery Palace
(B) Padmanabhapuram Palace
(C) Chirakkal Palace
(D) Krishnapuram Palace

Ans: Krishnapuram Palace (D)

27. With reference to caste system in Kerala, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Mannappedi’ and ‘Pulappedi’ were abolished by Sri Kerala Varma of Venad by issuing
   an order.
2. ‘Sankara Smriti’ is a text dealing with caste rules and practices.
3. ‘Channar’ agitation was a caste movement.
   Which of the statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (C)

28. Consider the following:

1. Revathipattathanam was an annual scholarly assembly patronised by Zamorin of Calicut.
2. ‘Kadannirikkal’ is an important aspect of Revathipattathanam.
3. Head of Payyur family was the chief judge of Revathipattathanam.
   Which among the above statement/s is/are NOT correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 2 only (B)

29. With reference to the evolution of the Malayalam language, consider the following statement/s:

1. The word ‘Jannal’ came to the Malayalam language from Portuguese.
2. ‘Diwan’ is a word that came to Malayalam from Arab language.
3. ‘Samkshepa Vedartham’ is the first printed book in Malayalam.
   Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (C)

30. Consider the following:

1. ‘Parahita’ system of astronomy existed in Kerala.
2. Katapayadi system employed letters to denote numbers.
3. ‘Laghubhaskareeya Vyakhya’ is an astronomical work.
   Which among the above statement/s are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (C)

31. Which one of the following statements about the Private Bill in Indian Parliament is NOT correct?
(A) It is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a Minister
(B) Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned
(C) Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.
(D) Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice

Ans: Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice (D)

32. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the federalism of India?

1. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”
2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”
3. The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution
4. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions

(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Ans: 1, 3 and 4 (A)

33. Considering different schedules in the Constitution of India, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Fifth Schedule: Provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
2. Sixth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories
3. Ninth Schedule: Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the Zamindari system
4. Tenth Schedule: Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only

Ans: 1 and 3 only (C)

34. In India, a Bill is not to be deemed to be a Money Bill, if it contains provision for–––––
(A) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
(B) the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered
(C) the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
(D) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union Government

Ans: the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered (B)

35. Which among the following statement is NOT correct regarding the election of the Vice-President of India?
(A) The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament
(B) The electoral college does not include the members of the State Legislative Assemblies
(C) The electoral college includes the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
(D) All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.

Ans: The electoral college includes the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies (C)

36. Which one among the following is added to fundamental duties through the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years
(B) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of Inquiry and reform
(C) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures
(D) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Ans: who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Swaran Singh Committee	Fundamental Duties
2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee	Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions
3. Rajamannar Committee	Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions
4. Ashok Mehta Committee	Centre-State relations

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

Ans: 1 and 2 only (D)

38. Which writ among the following is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform, which can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus

Ans: Mandamus (B)

39. Considering the powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliament which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(A) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants
(C) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills
(D) Only Lok Sabha has power in the introduction and passage of financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Ans: Only Lok Sabha has power in the introduction and passage of financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India (D)

40. Who among the following called Indian Federalism a “co-operative federalism”?
(A) K.C. Wheare
(B) Morris Jones
(C) Granville Austin
(D) Ivor Jennings

Ans: Granville Austin (C)

41. Which one among the following statement is NOT correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India’s salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament.
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India advises the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the States shall be kept.

Ans: Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court (A)

42. ‘Per incurium’ judgement means:
(A) judgement stands as a valid precedent
(B) partially allowed decision
(C) having no bindingness in subsequent decisions
(D) rebuttable judgement.

Ans: having no bindingness in subsequent decisions (C)

43. Which one of the following is NOT true of the doctrine of necessity as applied in administrative hearings?
(A) Administrative decisions not based on sound necessity is justifiable.
(B) Necessity acts as an exception to bias.
(C) The non-application of the doctrine in certain situations would impede justice.
(D) It postulates that every kind of preference made in administrative decisions and its process need not vitiate an administrative action.

Ans: Administrative decisions not based on sound necessity is justifiable (A)

44. In order to form a new State, which Schedule in the Constitution of India needs to be amended?
(A) Second Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) First Schedule.

Ans: First Schedule (D)

45. As per the Child Labour (Prohibitioin and Regulation) Act, 1986 a ‘week’ means a period of 7 days beginning at midnight of
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Thursday

Ans: Saturday (C)

46. ‘Recess’ under Indian Constitutional Scheme means:
(A) interval between prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly in new session
(B) Parliament in session
(C) adjournment of Parliament
(D) dissolution of House.

Ans: interval between prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly in new session (A)

47. Match the provisions in the Indian Constitution (List-I) with the country from which it is adopted in List-II.

List-I Constitutional Provisions of India	List-II Constitutions from which adopted
1. Concurrent List	(a) Australia
2. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency	(b) Germany
3.Method of election of the President	(c) Ireland
4. Residual Powers	(d) Canada
5. Amendment of the Constitution	(e) South Africa

Select the correct match:

(A) 1 (d), 2 (a), 3 (c), 4 (b), 5 (e)
(B) 1 (b), 2 (a), 3 (d), 4 (e), 5 (c)
(C) 1 (a), 2 (b), 3 (c), 4 (d), 5 (e)
(D) 1 (e), 2 (d), 3 (b), 4 (c), 5 (a)

Ans: 1 (a), 2 (b), 3 (c), 4 (d), 5 (e) (C)

48. Article 300A protects
(A) private property against executive action but not against legislative action
(B) private property against legislative action but not against executive action
(C) private property from both executive and legislative action
(D) none of the above.

Ans: private property against executive action but not against legislative action (A)

49. As per the Indian Constitution, the essential qualifications to become a Chief Election Commissioner are:
(A) Should have been in Indian Administrative Service.
(B) Should have completed thirty-five years of age.
(C) Should have practised law for not less than five years in any High Court.
(D) None of the above.

Ans: None of the above (D)

50. Which of the following is NOT one of the core values of Public Administration?
(A) Efficiency
(B) Equity
(C) Bureaucracy
(D) Effectiveness

Ans: Bureaucracy (C)

51. “Entropy” is a law of nature in which all forms of organizations move towards
(A) Disorganization and death
(B) Continuous improvement
(C) Growth and continuity
(D) Rebirth and emergency

Ans: Disorganization and death (A)

52. Under the Indian Constitution, the residuary powers are vested in:
(A) the States
(B) the Centre
(C) the States and Union Territories
(D) equally divided between the Centre and the States

Ans: the Centre (B)

53. The process of transmitting the idea or thought into meaningful symbols is called:
(A) Decoding
(B) Encoding
(C) Feedback
(D) Reception

Ans: Encoding (B)

54. The first Municipal Corporation was established in India at:
(A) Chennai
(B) Delhi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Mumbai

Ans: Chennai (A)

55. Which of the following is NOT a feature of good governance?
(A) Accountability
(B) Transparency
(C) Nepotism
(D) Rule of law

Ans: Nepotism (C)

56. “Leaders are born and not made” is a perception based on:
(A) Contingency Theory of Leadership
(B) Trait Theory of Leadership
(C) Fiedler’s Model of Leadership
(D) Situational Leadership

Ans: Trait Theory of Leadership (B)

57. Consider the following pairs:

Waterfall	River
1. Chitrakoot	Indravati
2. Dudhsagar	Zuari
3. Jog	Sharavathi
4. Athirapally	Chalakudy

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: 1, 3 and 4 only (B)

58. Consider the following statements regarding the Saharan dust.

1. The Saharan dust : fertilize the Amazon rainforest.
2. It provides mineral nutrients for phytoplankton in the Atlantic Ocean.
3. It helped to build beaches across the Caribbean after being deposited for thousands of years.
4. The Saharan dust : do not play any role in determining the intensity of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean.
   Which of the statements listed above are true?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 only (D)

59. The characteristics of a cyclone include:
I. Air convergence II. Upliftment of air
III. Centrifugal air flow IV. Circular air motion
(A) I and IV
(B) I, II and IV
(C) I, II and III
(D) All of these

Ans: I, II and IV (B)

60. Consider the following statements:
“Vulcanicity” refers to
I. all those processes in which molten rock material or magma rises into the crust.
II. the greater bulk of the volcanic rocks of the earth’s surface were erupted from volcanoes
III. the process of solidification of rock into crystalline or semi-crystalline form from molten rock material after being poured out on the surface.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) I, II and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I and III

Ans: I and III (D)

History GK Compilation from JKPSC Exam 2013

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