JKPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper with Answer Keys (KAS Exam)

JKPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper with Answer Keys (KAS Exam):

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Test Booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet.

2. Please note that it is the candiate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Response Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Response Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. Do not write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises of four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Response sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose Only One response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses Only on the separate Response Sheet provided. See directions in the Response Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Response sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet and Candiate’s Copy of the Response Sheet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

There will be Penalty for wrong answers marked by the candidate.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong anaswer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

(1) What set of three texts did Shankaracharya called Prasthanatrayi?
(A) Vedas, Upanishads and Bhagavadgita
(B) Mahabharata, Brahmnanas and Upanishads
(C) Upanishads, Bhagavadgita and Brahmasutras
(D) Vedas, Ramayana and Upanishads

Ans: Upanishads, Bhagavadgita and Brahmasutras (C)

(2) Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with china.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the company.
3. Christina Missionaries were allowed to enter in India.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (D)

(3) With reference to Gupta Land Administration, the terms “maru” and “pankila” denote
(A) Land classification
(B) Land measurement units
(C) Taxes imposed based on land types
(D) Land tenure systems

Ans: Land classification (A)

(4) Consider the following statements regarding Mughal period paintings;

1. Daswant and Baswan were two of the famous painters of Akbar’s court.
2. During Shah Jahan’s reign, Mughal paintings reached their zenith.
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

(5) The early medieval Saint Basavanna belonged to:
(A) Vaisnava Tradition
(B) Saiva Tradition
(C) Virasaiva Tradition
(D) None of the above

Ans: Virasaiva Tradition (C)

(6) The idea of Swadeshi and the boycott of foreign goods spread all over the country. In this context consider the following statements;

1. The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call-in Banaras session was presided by Surendranath Banerjee.
2. The movement was presided over in Bengal by Syed Haider Raza.
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 (D)

(7) Which of the following statement is true with respect to Lex Loci Act, 1850?
(A) It was to protect British Indigo planters
(B) It was to protect the interest of British capitalists
(C) Provided right to inherit properties to Hindu converts to Christianity
(D) Imposed the condition on Indian soldiers to serve outside India

Ans: Provided right to inherit properties to Hindu converts to Christianity (C)

(8) Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer:

Codes:

Ans: 2, 1, 4, 3 (A)

(9) Consider the statements below:

1. Arthasashtra by Kautilya is a major source for the study of Mauryan Age
2. The information given in Indica by Megesthnes is supplemented with Arthashastra
3. The Arthasashtra does not contain any references to the Maurya’s, their empire, Chandragupta, or Pataliputra
   Which of the above statements/statement is/are correct?
   (A) 1, 2 and 3
   (B) 1 and 2
   (C) 2 and 3
   (D) 2 only

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (A)

(10) Assertion (A): In Ashoka’s time, Bherighosa was replaced with Dhammaghosha.

Reason (R): After Ashoka acceded to the throne, Ashoka fought a major war called the Kalinga War.

Choose the correct one
(A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Ans: Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A (A)

(11) Match the following:

Correct match is

Ans: (b), (d), (a), (c) (A)

(12) In the entire history of the Delhi sultanate, there was only one Sultan who voluntarily abdicated his throne and moved to a small town away from Delhi. Which one of the following personalities is related to this context?

(A) Bahlul Lodi of the Lodi dynasty
(B) Alam shah of the sayyid dynasty
(C) Nasir-ud-din Muhammad Shah of the Thuglaq dynasty
(D) Nasir al din Mahamud II of Mamluk dynasty

Ans: Alam shah of the sayyid dynasty (B)

(13) Consider the following statements regarding Kushanas;

1. The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kadphises I
2. The Kushanas were a branch of the Yuchi Tribe
3. They issued gold coins with the title of “Lord of the whole world”
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (D)

(14) Consider the following statements regards ‘Judicial organisation’ in the time of British;

1. Cornwallis established Courts of the Circuit which were formed to deal with civil cases only
2. William Bentinck abolished the Circuit courts.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 2 only (B)

(15) Which of the following events happened during the period of Lord Warren Hastings?

1. Treaty of Salbai
2. Eyre Coote defeated Haider Ali at Porto Novo
3. Treaty of Seringapatnam
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 3 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 2 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1 and 2 only (C)

(16) The Sangam literature can be divided into two groups named Narrative and Didactic. In this context, consider the following Statements.

1. The narrative texts are called Kilkanakku or Eighteen minor works.
2. The Didactic texts are called Melkannakku or Eighteen major works.
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 (D)

(17) Which of the following bacterium is called the superbug that is used for oil degradation?
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Streptococcus pyrogenes
(C) Pseudomonas putida
(D) Bacillus subtillis

Ans: Pseudomonas putida (C)

(18) The equation dN/dt = rN describes………….pattern of population
(A) Exponential growth
(B) Hyperbolic growth
(C) Logistic growth
(D) Rectangular growth

Ans: Exponential growth (A)

(19) Which of the statement is true?
(A) Benthic refers to the floor of the sea and benthos refers to plants and animals that live there.
(B) Benthos refers to the floor of the sea and benthic refers to plants and animals that live there.
(C) Benthos refers to the flora of the sea and benthic refers to animals that live there.
(D) Benthos and benthic both refer to animals that live there.

Ans: Benthic refers to the floor of the sea and benthos refers to plants and animals that live there (A)

(20) The processes of permafrost, glaciations, defrosting and de-glaciations are known as
(A) Ardent processes
(B) Searing processes
(C) Warming processes
(D) Cryogenic processes

Ans: Cryogenic processes (D)

(21) A coalition of 50+ companies worldwide seeking to send a powerful market signal to commercialize zero-carbon technologies is named as
(A) First Movers Coalition
(B) Global Initiative of Companies for Zero Carbon
(C) World Environmental Forum
(D) Global Environmental Forum

Ans: First Movers Coalition (A)

(22) Lichen is an example of
(A) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism

Ans: Mutualism (A)

(23) Pollination by butterflies is called
(A) Ornithophily
(B) Elelophily
(C) Myrmecophily
(D) Psychophily

Ans: Psychophily (D)

(24) Bacteria which help in the denitrification process is
(A) Nitrosomonas
(B) Nitrobacter
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) Rhizobium

Ans: Pseudomonas (C)

(25) Consider the following pairs

The correct match/s is/are;

(A) Only one pair matches
(B) Only two pairs match
(C) Only three pairs match
(D) All pairs match

Ans: Only three pairs match (C)

(26) Consider the following pairs

The correct match/s is/are;

(A) Only one pair matches
(B) Only two pairs match
(C) Only three pairs match
(D) All pairs match

Ans: All pairs match (D)

(27) Consider the difference between Augmented reality and Virtual reality.

1. Augmented reality refers to a digitally simulated experience that can either mimic reality or create a unique version of reality.
2. Virtual reality brings digital elements into the real world through reality glasses or any number of other digital devices.
   Which of the given statements are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 (D)

(28) Consider the following statements regarding the purification of water;

1. Chlorine kills pathogenic bacteria but it does not affect spores and hepatitis and jaundice viruses.
2. Ozone removes all chlorine and inactivates viruses very quickly.
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Both 1 and 2 (C)

(29) Consider the following statements;

1. The property of a carbon atom to link with other carbon atoms is known as Catenation.
2. The phenomenon of the existence of compounds having the same molecular formula but a different structural formula is known as Isomerism.
   Choose the correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Both 1 and 2 (C)

(30) Match the following

The correct match/s is/are;

(A) Only one pair matches
(B) Only two pairs match
(C) Only three pairs match
(D) All pairs match

Ans: Only one pair matches (A)

(31) Consider the following statements.

1. Machine learning uses layered neural networks that are loosely modelled on the human brain.
2. Deep learning is broadly about teaching a computer how to spot patterns and use mountains of data to make connections without any programming to accomplish a specific task.
   Choose the correct answer:
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 (D)

(32) Consider the following statements regards ‘5G’ technology.

1. 5G mainly works in 3 bands, namely low, mid, and high-frequency spectrum
2. The low band spectrum has shown great promise in terms of coverage and speed of internet and data exchange, the maximum speed is limited to 100 Mbps
3. Low band spectrum may be used by industries and specialized factory units for building captive networks.
   Which of the following given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 2 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1 and 2 only (A)

(33) Which of the following statements regards ‘non-Fungible token’ are correct?

1. Everything from drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies, and even a tweet can be turned into Non-Fungible Tokens.
2. NFT can be traded and exchanged with the use of blockchain technology.
   Choose the correct answer:
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

(34) Choose the correct statement.

Why does an apple turn orange when kept in the air atmosphere?

1. Apple contains tannins which act as astringent agents.
2. Apple cannot contain tannins due to the presence of Betacyanins.
3. Apple turns brown because of Phenolics agents.
4. Apple does not change its color in the air atmosphere.
   How many statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one statement
   (B) Only two statements
   (C) Only three statements
   (D) All the four statements

Ans: Only one statement (A)

(35) Which of the following quantity remains constant when an artificial Satellite revolves round the Earth in circular orbit?
(A) Linear Velocity
(B) Angular Frequency
(C) Angular Momentum
(D) Angular Displacement

Ans: Angular Momentum (A)

(36) A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken driving uses……….
(A) Potassium dichromatic-sulphuric acid
(B) Turmeric on filter paper
(C) Silica gel coated with silver nitrate
(D) Potassium permanganate-sulphuric acid

Ans: Potassium dichromatic-sulphuric acid (A)

(37) Which one of the following processes is used for aluminium extraction?
(A) Hall-Heroult process
(B) Calcination
(C) Leaching
(D) Van-Arkel method

Ans: Hall-Heroult process (A)

(38) Identify the correct match of the Indian parliamentary closure motions and their definitions.

1. Simple Closure- It is one when a member moves that the ‘matter has been sufficiently discussed and be now put to vote’.
2. Closure by Compartments- Only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed.
3. Kangaroo Closure- In this case, the clause of a bill or a lengthy resolution are grouped into parts before the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a whole and the entire part is put to vote.
4. Guillotine Closure- It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also put to vote along with the discussed ones due to want of time.
   How many statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one statement
   (B) Only two statements
   (C) Only three statements
   (D) Only four statements

Ans: Only two statements (B)

(39) The Incremental Model of Policy making process was propounded by
(A) James Anderson
(B) Charles Lindblom
(C) Robert Haveman
(D) Etzioni

Ans: Charles Lindblom (B)

(40) Consider the following statements regarding CJI;

1. The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
2. Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the senior judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
3. After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs will put up the recommendation to the President in the matter of appointment.
   The correct statement/s is/are
   (A) 1, 2 and 3
   (B) 2 and 3
   (C) 1 only
   (D) 1 and 2

Ans: 1 and 2 (D)

(41) Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman, the Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a member without adopting a motion for suspension.
2. While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in him.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Both 1 and 2 (C)

(42) What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
(A) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House 
(B) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House 
(C) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers 
(D) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President

Ans: The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House  (B)

(43) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Codes:

Ans: 3, 4, 1, 2 (B)

(44) Which of the following DO NOT participate in the process of election of President of India?

1. Nominated members of both houses of Parliament
2. Nominated members of Legislative assemblies
3. Elected members of legislative councils
4. Elected members of UT legislative assemblies
   How many statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one statement
   (B) Only two statements
   (C) Only three statements
   (D) All the four statements

Ans: Only three statements (C)

(45) Consider the following statements;

1. The constitution of India doesn’t declare the location of the seat of the Supreme Court
2. CJI can appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court only after the approval of the President.
3. The President of India can order the Supreme Court to change its seat of location.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1, 2 and 3
   (B) 1 and 3
   (C) 2 only
   (D) 1 and 2

Ans: 2 only (C)

(46) Identify the correct match;

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only one statement
(B) Only two statements
(C) Only three statements
(D) All the four statements

Ans: Only two statements (B)

(47) Consider the following statements;

1. The word ‘cabinet’ was not a part of the original constitution, it was added in 1978 by the 44^th constitutional amendment act.
2. ‘Ministers as a member of the council of ministers, but does not include deputy ministers.
   The correct statement/s is/are;
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

(48) The theory of Separation of powers was advocated by which of the following political and constitutional philosopher
(A) Hobbes
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Locks
(D) Mussolini

Ans: Montesquieu (B)

(49) Which among the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the Indian economy?

1. Demonetisation is the act of stripping money of its legal tender status.
2. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio by the reserve Bank of India increases the money multiplication in the market.
3. Haircut reflects the borrower’s perception of the risk of falls in the value of assets.
   Select the correct option using the code given below:
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1 only

Ans: 1 only (D)

(50) In India, the Broad Money (M3), measures money supply as the sum of
(A) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI
(B) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Time Deposits with banks
(C) Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Savings Deposits with post office + Currency with the public
(D) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Total post office deposits

Ans: Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Time Deposits with banks (B)

(51) Which of the following could be said to have prevented ‘trickle-down effects’ in the Indian economy?

1. Increased dependence of agriculture on purchased input and privately managed irrigation.
2. More emp[loyment of labour by larger landholding farmers.
3. Lower participation of women in the agricultural workforce due to new technology.
4. The failure of the Green Revolution
   The answer is
   (A) 1 and 2
   (B) 2 and 3
   (C) 1 and 3
   (D) 2 and 4

Ans: 1 and 3 (C)

(52) Which among the following statement are correct regarding the share market operations?

1. Bear is a person who speculates share prices to fall in future and so sells his shares and earns a profit.
2. Bull is a person who speculates share prices to go up in future so either stops selling selected shares for a time period.
3. A Bull increases the number of shares in a stock market.
4. A Bear creates a scarcity of shares in the stock market.
   The answer is
   (A) 1 and 2
   (B) 1, 2 and 3
   (C) 1, 3 and 4
   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: 1 and 2 (A)

(53) Consider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) of Reserve Bank of India.

1. It aims to monitor the operation of weaker banks more closely to encourage them to conserve capital and avoid risks.
2. It imposes certain restrictions on dividend distribution and expansion of branches by banks that are financially weak.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 (D)

(54) Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Bonds.

1. A sovereign bond is a specific debt instrument issued by the government in both foreign and domestic currency.
2. The yield of the sovereign bond is the interest rate that the government pays on issuing bonds.
3. The central banks also control the supply of money within the economy by the use of these bonds.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 and 2
   (B) 1 and 3
   (C) 2 and 3
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (D)

(55) Consider the following statements about National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

1. It is a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 8 of Companies Act 2013.
2. It is set up to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
3. National Financial Switch (NFS) and Cheque Truncation System (CTS) are the flagship products of NPCI.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 and 2
   (B) 2 and 3
   (C) 1 and 3
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 (D)

(56) Consider the following statements.

1. If the fiscal deficit ratio is too high it leads to higher rates of interest for the borrowings of private entrepreneurs and businesses.
2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 suggests bringing the fiscal deficit down to about 3% plus or minus 2% of the GDP.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1 only (A)

(57) Consider the following statements.

1. GDP evaluated at current market price is not the right metric to compare the GDP figures of different countries.
2. Nominal GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices.
3. If the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   (A) 1 and 2
   (B) 2 and 3
   (C) 1 and 3
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 1 and 3 (C)